ArkeemL47946 ArkeemL47946

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Mathematics

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Danika concludes that the following functions are inveese of each other because f(g(x))=x. Do you agree with danika explain your reasoning.f(x)=[x]g(x)=-x

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ArseniyO275211 ArseniyO275211

Today at 1:23 AM

It's important to know that the rule for inverse functions is

[tex]f(g(x))=x[/tex]

Where,

[tex]\begin{gathered} f(x)=\lbrack x\rbrack \\ g(x)=-x \end{gathered}[/tex]

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